The goal is to see what is the asymptotic behaviour of
$$U(t)=\frac{1}{2\pi^2|\vec{x}-\vec{x}_0|}\int_0^{\infty}dp~p \sin(p|\vec{x}-\vec{x}_0|)e^{-it\sqrt{p^2+m^2}}\tag{p.14}$$ for $x^2\gg t^2$.
In my book ('Introduction to Quantum Field Theory' of Peskin and Schröder page 14) they do steps I have great problems to understand: They use the method of stationary phase. They get the stationary point $$p=imx/\sqrt{x^2-t^2}$$ of the phase function $$f(p)=px-t\sqrt{p^2+m^2}.$$ Now they write
We may freely push the contour upward so that it goes through this point. Plugging in this value for $p$, we find that, up to a rational function of $x$ and $t$, $$U(t)\sim e^{-m\sqrt{x^2-t^2}}.\tag{p.14} $$
I don't understand this method, I looked at Wikipedia and in the searching machine, but I don't get it for this example and I don't quite understand what a phase function is. I changed the function $U(t)$ with the relation $\sin(x)=\frac{1}{2i}(e^{ix}-e^{-ix})$. In this way one of the the exponents is $$i(p|\vec{x}-\vec{x}_0|-t\sqrt{p^2+m^2}).$$ I calculated the first and second derivative, which have to be zero for a saddle point and so I hoped to get the stationary point written above. But if I plug $$p=imx/\sqrt{x^2-t^2}$$ in $$f'(p)=x-pt/\sqrt{p^2+m^2}$$ this derivative is not zero, but it is $f'(imx/\sqrt{x^2-t^2})=x-t$.
Do I understand all this totally wrong? I also don't understand what they mean in the cited sentences.