Let $f$ be a entire function such that $$\lim_{z\to \infty} \frac{f(z)}{z}=0$$
What can we conclude about $f$.
Using the change of variable $w=1/z$ we can conclude $\lim_{w\to 0} f(1/w)w=0$ so at $w=0$ we have removable singularity so we conclude that $f$ has removable singularity at $z=\infty$
Now what should be my next step?