To give you a little more than what my comment suggests:
Let $X\sim \mathcal{N}(\mu, \sigma^2)$ i.e. normally distributed with mean-parameter $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$. We need to show the expectation of $X$ is equal to $\mu$. That is,
$$\mathbb{E}(X)=\mu,$$
where the expectation of $X$ is defined as
$$\mathbb{E}(X):=\int_{-\infty}^\infty xf_X(x)\mathrm{d}x,$$
and
$$f_X(x)=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}} e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}},$$
is the probability density function of $X$. Thus our integral in full is,
$$\mathbb{E}(X)=\frac1{\sqrt{2\pi \sigma^2}}\int_{-\infty}^\infty x e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}} \mathrm{d}x,$$
which can be readily computed by basic integral methods (although it is not a one-liner). In fact, it is already, in detail, explained on this site here (with the bonus of also deriving the variance!).