I know I'm missing something super basic here but:
From the definition in my textbook, a Carmichael is any number n such that $(\forall a)\; \gcd(a,n) = 1$:
$a^n \equiv a \pmod n$ or
$a^{n-1} \equiv 1 \pmod n$
So by this definition, how come $2$ is not a Carmichael number? $(\forall a) \; \gcd(a,2) = 1$ (i.e. $a$ is odd),
$a \equiv 1 \pmod 2$ or
$a^2 \equiv a \pmod 2 \equiv 1 \pmod 2$
But obviously $2$ isn't a Carmichael number, so I'm not sure where I went wrong.