Suppose I take $n$ random draws with replacement from a set of $N < \infty$ items. The probability that I will draw $k$ unique items is
$p(k) = \dfrac{(N)_k}{N^n} S(n, k)$
where $(N)_k = N (N-1) \cdots (N-k+1)$ is the "falling factorial" and $S(n, k)$ is the Stirling number of the second kind, i.e.,
$S(n, k) = \dfrac{1}{k!} \sum_{i=0}^k (-1)^i \binom{k}{i} (k-i)^n$.
This was solved previously here.
I am interested in an extension of this problem. Suppose further that $Q$ of the objects have a desirable property, and the remaining $N-Q$ objects do not. What then is the probability of drawing $k$ unique objects, where each object has property $Q$?
Thanks!