It's easy to show that $G$ is abelian if $a^2=e.$
Can't seem to figure out how to prove/disprove this.
It's easy to show that $G$ is abelian if $a^2=e.$
Can't seem to figure out how to prove/disprove this.
The standard counterexample is the group of matrices of the form $$\pmatrix{1&a&b\\0&1&c\\0&0&1}$$ over the field of three elements.