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I'm reading Willard's topology, and the following came up as an 'easy' exercise in the text, though I am having trouble seeing why it is true. Let $X$ be a set, $\mathscr U$ some cover of $X$, and let $\mathscr W$ be a barycentric refinement of a barycentric refinement $\mathscr V$ of $\mathscr U$. Then, $\mathscr W$ is a star refinement of $\mathscr U$. (See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Star_refinement for the definitions). Here are some of my thoughts on this:

First, by assumption, to every $x \in X$, there is some $y_x \in X$ such that $\text{st}(x, \mathscr W) \subseteq \text{st}(y_x, \mathscr V)$. That is to say, $\bigcup\{ W \in \mathscr W \vert x \in W \} \subseteq \bigcup \{V \in \mathscr V \vert y_x \in V\}$. Moreover, we also have by assumption that for every $z \in X$, there is $U \in \mathscr U$ such that $\text{st}(z, \mathscr V) \subseteq U$. Let $A\subseteq X$; one needs to show $\text{st}(A, \mathscr W) \subseteq U$ for some $U \in \mathscr U$. Notice that $\text{st}(A, \mathscr W) = \bigcup_{x \in A} \text{st}(x, \mathscr W)$.

With notation as above, we then have $\text{st}(A, \mathscr W) \subseteq \bigcup_{x \in A} \text{st}(y_x, \mathscr V)$. I do not see why this union should be contained in a single $U \in \mathscr U$; for each $y_x$, there is some $U_{y_x} \in \mathscr U$ for which $\text{st}(y_x, \mathscr V) \subseteq U_{y_x}$. Is there a way to find a single $U$ containing each of the $\text{st}(y_x, \mathscr V)$'s?

Thanks in advance.

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So we have $\mathcal{W} \prec_b \mathcal{V} \prec_b \mathcal{U}$ and we want to show $\mathcal{W} \prec_\ast \mathcal{U}$.

Let $W_0$ be some element of $\mathcal{W}$ and consider $x_0 \in W_0$.

As $\mathcal{V} \prec_b \mathcal{U}$ we know that $\mathrm{st}(x_0, \mathcal{V}) \subseteq U_0$ for some $U_0 \in \mathcal{U}$.

Now my claim is that in fact $\mathrm{st}(W_0,\mathcal{W}) \subseteq U_0$, finishing the proof of star-refinement:

To this end, let $W \in \mathcal{W}$ be any member that intersects $W_0$. Say $x \in W \cap W_0$.

As $\mathcal{W} \prec_b \mathcal{V}$ there is some $V_0 \in \mathcal{V}$ such that $\mathrm{st}(x, \mathcal{W}) \subseteq V_0$.

Then $W \cup W_0 \subseteq \mathrm{st}(x,\mathcal{W}) \subseteq V_0$ so that in particular $x_0 \in V_0$ and so $V_0 \subseteq \mathrm{st}(x_0, \mathcal{V}) \subseteq U_0$ and as $W \subseteq V_0$, also $W \subseteq U_0$.

As $W$ was an arbitrary member of the sets whose union is $\mathrm{st}(W_0, \mathcal{W})$ we see that $\mathrm{st}(W_0, \mathcal{W}) \subseteq U_0$ as required.

Magical isn't it? A search yielded that this argument was also hidden in the third paragraph of this answer but only as a lemma of sorts.

Henno Brandsma
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  • Yes, the argument does seem rather magical (I do understand the steps involved). I’m not sure how to develop intuition for these sorts of covering arguments (I’m not as comfortable with paracompactness as I should be), but perhaps it’s a matter of experience and doing more exercises. – LinearOperator32 Mar 31 '19 at 00:38