(That title's quite a mouthful, isn't it?)
A lot of my answers, though derived independently, are not new, and I often acknowledge this. However, I recently came up with a result that was new to me, so I am asking if it is really new.
My result came up while attempting to find an inductive proof of the inequality between the arithmetic and harmonic means. This is the question:
This is the inequality between the arithmetic and harmonic means.
I eventually came up with this identity, which I do not recall having seen before:
Let $s_n =u_nv_n $ where $u_n=\sum_{k=1}^n a_k, v_n= \sum_{k=1}^n \dfrac1{a_k} $.
Then
$s_{n+1} =(\sqrt{s_n}+1)^2+\dfrac1{\sqrt{a_{n+1}}}(\sqrt{u_n}-a_{n+1}\sqrt{v_n})^2 $.
Since $s_1 = 1$, this immediately shows that $\sqrt{s_{n+1}} \ge \sqrt{s_n}+1$ so that $\sqrt{s_n} \ge n$, $s_n \ge n^2$ and the condition for $s_{n+1} = s_n+1$ is $a_{n+1} =\sqrt{\dfrac{u_n}{v_n}} =\sqrt{\dfrac{\sum_{k=1}^n a_k}{\sum_{k=1}^n \dfrac1{a_k}}} $.
So, my question is "Is this identity new?"
Of course the answer is probably "No", but a reference would be nice.