This is an exercise problem given by my TA in my Real Analysis class. However, I am having quite a bit of problem with just understanding the problem. In particular, I am not sure how to show (1) and the motivation for defining such $\phi_n(t)$
For (3), I suppose I need to express $\phi_n(t)$ as a sequence of real-valued continuous function in order to get the result.
For (4), I thought the function is defined as $\phi_n(t)=y_0+\int_0^t F(\phi_n(s-\frac{1}{n}),s)$ already. The question makes me a bit confused.
In summary, I would like to hear anything that can help me understand the question better as well as proceeding with the answers. The textbook I am using is Analysis II by Tao
I have also found a comparable proof where I was only able to understand part of it. Proving Peano's Existence Theorem by approximating with $C^{\infty}$ functions using Weierstrass' Theorem.
