Prove or give a counterexample:
If $U_1, U_2, W$ are subspaces of $V$ such that $U_1 \bigoplus W = U_2 \bigoplus W$, then $U_1 = U_2$.
Proof
Let $u_1+w \in U_1 \bigoplus$ W. Since $U_1\bigoplus W= U_2\bigoplus W, u_1+w \in U_2\bigoplus W$. Since $w \in U_2 \bigoplus W, -w \in U_2 \bigoplus W$. Therefore $ u_1 \in U_2 \bigoplus W $.Since $U_1$ and $W$ have no elements in common,$u_1 \not\in W$ . Therefore $u_1 \in U_2$. Therefore$ U_1 \subseteq U_2.$ Similarly other side inclusion works. Therefore $U_1=U_2$.
What is wrong with this proof?