I have made several attempts at various times to understand the many equivalent definitions of an amenable group. Is the following statement correct?
A group $G$ is amenable if and only if, for any finite subset $X$ of $G$ and any $\epsilon > 0$, there is a finite subset $A$ of the subgroup $\langle X \rangle$ of $G$ generated by $X$, such that $|xA \, \Delta\, A|/|A| < \epsilon$ for all $x \in X$.
Thanks!