If $X$ standard normal and $Y$ symmetric Bernoulli are independent then $Y$ and $Z=XY$ are independent?
It is quite intuivively obvious that $Z\sim\mathcal N(0,1)$ and that would imply that $Y$ and $Z$ are independent, but how to prove it?
$E(Z)=E(XY)=E(X)E(Y)=0\cdot0=0$
$Var(Z)=E((E(XY)-XY)^2)=E(X^2Y^2)=E(X^2)=Var(X)+E(X)^2=1+0=1$
But that merely gives us the expected value and variance, this probably isn't enough to conclude that $Z\sim\mathcal N(0,1)$
Would $X$ and $Z$ also be independent?
Update:
Greedoid's answer led me to this:
$$P(Z\le z)= P(Z\le z|Y=1)P(Y=1)+P(Z\le z|Y=-1)P(Y=-1) \\ = P(X\le z)\cdot{1\over2}+P(-X\le z)\cdot{1\over2}\\ ={1\over2}\phi(z)+{1\over2}\phi(z)=\phi(z)$$
where $\phi$ is the cumulative distribution function of the $\mathcal N(0,1)$ law
And this is true because $P(-X\le z)=P(X\le z)$ because $-X\sim\mathcal N(0,1)$