How to handle $$a_n := e^{- (1+\varepsilon)n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \frac{(1+\varepsilon)^k n^k}{k!} $$ the analytical way, where $\varepsilon > 0.$
What we obviously know is: $a_n \leq 1$.
If we take $J_n \sim \gamma (n, n)$ where $\gamma(n,n)$ denotes the gamma distribution, then $a_n = \Bbb P( J_n > 1 + \varepsilon)$. I put the $\varepsilon$ there, because in my intuition $J_n \to 1$. Indeed:
$$J_n \sim \sum_{k=1}^{n} X_k \sim \frac 1 n \sum_{k=1}^n Y_k \to 1$$
weakly as $n\to\infty$, where $Y_k \sim \text{Exp}(1)$ independently. So, since $\delta_1 (\partial(1+\varepsilon,\infty))=0$, we have $a_n \to 0$.
But what I want is a analytical approach to this, at best with a bound for $a_n$, e.g. $a_n \leq e^{-\phi (n)}$.