I found this general infinite sum:
$\sum_{i=1}^\infty \frac{ \mathtt i \mathtt f \; (i \pmod n = 0) \; \mathtt t \mathtt h \mathtt e \mathtt n \;(1-n) \; \mathtt e \mathtt l \mathtt s \mathtt e \; (1)}{i} = log(n)$
Sample with n = 2:
log(2) = 1 - $\frac{1}{2}$ + $\frac{1}{3}$ - $\frac{1}{4}$ + $\frac{1}{5}$ - $\frac{1}{6}$ + $\frac{1}{7}$ - ...
(the minus are given at (i MOD 2)=0 --> (1 minus 2) = -1)
Sample with n = 3:
log(3) = 1 + $\frac{1}{2}$ - $\frac{2}{3}$ + $\frac{1}{4}$ + $\frac{1}{5}$ - $\frac{2}{6}$ + $\frac{1}{7}$ + $\frac{1}{8}$ - $\frac{2}{9}$ + ...
(the minus are given at (i MOD 3)=0 --> (1 minus 3) = -2)
and so on.
Is this formula already known? Can that be proven?
Thanks in advance.