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Let $m$ be Lebesgue measure. Construct a Borel subset $A$ of $\mathbb{R}$ such that $0 < m(A \cap I) < m(I)$ for every open interval $I$.

This question has been discussed before on this site, for example, here.

However, I came up with a much simpler solution than the other answers on this site, so I am worried there is something wrong with it.

Suppose $I$ is an open interval. For any set $A$, we define the set $cA = \{ca : a \in A \}$. Let $A = \frac{1}{2}I$. The set $A$ is also an interval and is therefore a Borel set. Since $m(cA) = \lvert c \rvert m(A)$, we have that $m(A \cap I) = m(\frac{1}{2} I) = \frac{1}{2} m(I)$. Then we have $$ 0 < m(A \cap I) = \frac{1}{2} m(I) < m(I) $$ as required.

Is there something wrong with this proof?

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