If $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$ is a measure space, $(X,\mathcal{B},\overline{\mu})$ is complete, $\mathcal{B}\supset\mathcal{A}$, and $\overline{\mu}(A)=\mu(A)$ for every $A\in\mathcal{A}$, is $(X,\mathcal{B},\overline{\mu})$ necessarily the completion of $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$?
My definition of completion is:
The completion of $\mathcal{A}$ is the smallest $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{B}$ containing $\mathcal{A}$ such that $(X,\mathcal{B},\mu)$ is complete.
It seems like the answer to my question is no, because it isn't clear that $\mathcal{B}$ is necessarily the smallest $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties. But I have been looking at the Completion Theorem where they seem to assume that the answer to my question is yes. How can I see that the smallest $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties is the only $\sigma$-algebra satisfying the required properties?