I've recently come across the Monty hall problem and while the reasoning behind switching doors makes sense intuitively to me I can't seem to understand the maths behind it.
I've seen many proofs online using Bayes Theorem and I manage to understand the majority of it aside from one thing.
In the classic setting of the Monty Hall problem let $A$ be the event that the car is behind the first door that I chose. Let $B$ the event that Monty reveals a goat behind door 2.
Then, using Bayes Theorem, we have
$$P(A \mid B)=\frac{P(B \mid A)P(A)}{P(B)}$$
Now, $P(B \mid A)=\frac{1}{2}$ because if the car is behind door 1 then Monty can choose either the second or third door. $P(A)=\frac{1}{3}$ because there's a one in three chance of the car being behind the first door.
This all makes sense to me - my struggle comes in finding $P(B)$.
I understand that there are 3 separate scenarios:
-$ \textbf{The car is behind door 1} $ As above in this case $P(B)=\frac{1}{2}.$
$\textbf{The car is behind door 2} $ Clearly, $P(B)=0$ as Monty cannot reveal a goat behind door 2.
$\textbf{The car is behind door 3} $ If the car is behind door 3, then Monty is forced to open door 2 and so in this case $P(B)=1$.
The way I see it, by combining these three scenarios $$P(B)=\frac{1}{2} + 0 + 1=\frac{3}{2}$$
But in every proof that I have seen they divide this by 3 for some unknown reason. I feel like I may be missing something blindingly obvious but I don't understand why this is true.
Could someone explain the reason that $P(B)=\frac{1}{2}$ as opposed to $\frac{3}{2}$?