I'm a little bit in truble with definitions. Let $(X,\mathcal F,\mu)$. I have that a set $A\subset X$ is measurable if
$1)$ $A\in \mathcal F$.
$2)$ An other definition tels me that $A$ is measurable if Caratheodory formula hold, i.e. $$\mu(E)=\mu(E\cap A)+\mu(E\cap A^c)$$for all $E\subset X$.
Let consider $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B,m)$ where $\mathcal B$ are the Borels set and $m$ the Lebesgue measure. Here I also have an other definition :
$3)$ For all $\varepsilon>0$ there is an open set $\mathcal O\supset A$ s.t. $$m(\mathcal O\backslash A)<\varepsilon.$$
I proved that 2) and 3) are equivalent. But the problem is we now that there are measurable set that are not Borel set. So typically, in $(\mathbb R,\mathcal B,m)$, definitions 2) and 3) doesn't hold, right ? So when do I have to use $2)$ and $3)$ and when do I have to use $1)$ ? (btw, I think that $1)$ always work)... So definitions $2)$ and $3)$ are wrong ?