I'm looking for a counter-example for the problem in title when $F_1$ is not flabby. We know that if $0\to F_1 \to F_2 \to F_3\to 0$ is a short exact sequence of Abelian sheaves and $F_1$ is flabby then for any $U \subseteq X$ which is open we have the following exact sequence: $$0\to F_1(U) \to F_2(U) \to F_3(U)\to 0$$
Is there a counter-example that shows this may no longer be true if $F_1$ is not flabby? If yes, how a counter-example can be constructed?
Edit: I'm looking for a solution without reference to manifolds or De Rham cohomology. Thanks.