I am trying to solve the following question, which appears as the part of an exercise in Atiyah-Macdonald Chapter I.22:
For a ring $A$, if $\mathrm{Spec}(A)$ is disconnected, then we have $A\cong A_1\times A_2$ for some rings $A_1,A_2$.
Actually, the original question is to show three equivalent conditions and we can avoid the above. But I would like to see if there is a possibility to prove this.
Here is my attempt:
Let $\mathrm{Spec}(A)=V(I_1)\cup V(I_2)$, where $V(I_i)$ are proper closed sets and $V(I_1)\cap V(I_2)=\emptyset$. Then we have $$I_1+I_2=(1)$$
So if we have $I_1\cap I_2=\{0\}$, we can use the Chinese remainder theorem to show $$A\cong A/\{0\}\cong (A/I_1)\times (A/I_2)$$ then we are done. Unfortunately, from $V(I_1)\cup V(I_2)=V(I_1\cap I_2)=\mathrm{Spec}(A)$, we can only obtain $$I_1\cap I_2\subset \mathfrak{N}$$ where $\mathfrak{N}$ is the nilradical of $A$.
So I was wondering if we can shrink $I_1$ and $I_2$ so that complete the above argument. The obvious try is $I_1$ and the ideal generated by $I_2\setminus I_1$, but it is apparent to see $I_1\cap \langle I_2\setminus I_1 \rangle\neq \{0\}$...
I really appreciate any kind of help!