My notes have a proof of the following claim:
Prove there are $\gcd(n,m)$ homomorphisms $\phi: \mathbb{Z}_n \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}_m$.
I was able to follow most of it but I got lost. I outline the proof below and highlight where I get lost:
First we note that $\phi$ is completely determined by the image of $1$. To see this note: $\phi(x) = \phi(1+1+1+1....+1) = x \phi(1)$ so that if $\phi(1) = a \in \mathbb{Z}_n$ then the task is to find all $a$'s such that $\phi(x) = ax$ is a homomorphism. Arguments (which I don't reproduce) show that $\text{ord}(\phi(1))|n$ and $\text{ord}(\phi(1))|m$, thus $\text{ord}(\phi(1))|\gcd(m,n)$. Now I get lost. My notes say:
Look at $\langle\frac{m}{\gcd(m,n)}\rangle$ in $\mathbb{Z}_m$. Observe $\phi(1) \in \langle\frac{m}{\gcd(m,n)}\rangle$.
Thus $\phi(1) = k \frac{m}{\gcd(m,n)}$ for any $1 \leq k < \gcd(m,n)$. Thus there are $\gcd(m,n)$ homomorphisms.
- Why do I look at $\langle\frac{m}{\gcd(m,n)}\rangle$ in $\mathbb{Z}_m$?
- How do I see that $\phi(1)$ must be in $\langle\frac{m}{\gcd(m,n)}\rangle$?