I'm confused about sufficiency of KKT conditions for optimality.
In http://www.stat.cmu.edu/~ryantibs/convexopt/scribes/kkt-scribed.pdf, page 3, Section 12.1.3 it is stated that
For any optimization problem, if $x^\star$ and $(u^\star,v^\star)$ (optimal lagrange multipliers) satisfy KKT conditions for the problem, then satisfying those KKT conditions is sufficient to imply that $x^\star$ and $(u^\star,v^\star)$ are the optimal solutions for the primal and it’s dual. This statement is equivalent to saying satisfying KKT conditions is always sufficient for optimality.
The argument is based on the fact that if $(x^\star,u^\star,v^\star)$ is a KKT point, then it must hold $g(u^\star,v^\star)=f(x^\star)$ because of primal/dual feasibility and complementary slackness. Hence, I would deduce that if there is a KKT point, then strong duality holds and the global optimum is found.
However, I thought that KKT conditions are only necessary for optimality under the assumption that strong duality holds - thus my confusion.
Could someone clarify? Also, supposing that strong duality does not hold, what can we say about KKT points? Thanks.