So, I know there is a post that already asks this question, but the question I’m asking is if my proof ,up to now, is correct, and how to finish it. I have not studied sin and cos, so please refrain from using those in your answer.
So, if we break it down, $e^{i\pi}=i^2=-1$. If we replaced the values in this equation by, say, 2, 3 and x, then we get $2^{3x}=3^2=9$ To get 9, we need to find $\frac {log_2(9)}{3}$, which is equal to about $1.056641667$. If we replace $x$ by this new number, then we get $2^{3\times1.056641667}$, which is roughly equal to $9$. Now, going back to $e^{i\pi}$, we can apply the same strategy. We need to find $\frac{log_e(\pi)}{i}$. $log_e(\pi)$ is easy, it’s about 1.144729886. I’m just wondering how to get $\frac {1.144729886}{i}$.