Consider the following problem:
Let $a_1, \ldots, a_n$ and $b_1, \ldots, b_n$ be real numbers such that $$a_1^k+\cdots a_n^k= b_1^k+ \cdots+b_n^k$$ for all $1\leq k\leq n$. Then there is a bijection $\varphi:\{1, 2, \ldots, n\}\to \{1, 2, \ldots, n\}$ such that $a_i=b_{\varphi(i)}$ for all $i$.
This can be proved using Newton's identities, which gives that the polynomials $p(x)=(x-a_1)\cdots(x-a_n)$ and $q(x)=(x-b_1)\cdots(x-b_n)$ are identical.
My question is, can this be said about countable sequences. More precisely, is the following true?
Let $a_1, a_2, a_3, \ldots$ and $b_1, b_2, b_3,\ldots$ be real numbers such that $$a_1^k+a_2^k+a_3^k+\cdots = b_1^k+ b_2^k+b_3^k+ \cdots$$ are equal for all $k\geq 1$ (Here we insist that both sums are convergent for each $k$). Then there is a bijection $\varphi:\mathbb N \to \mathbb N$ such that $a_i=b_{\varphi(i)}$ for all $i$.