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For each and every $k\geqslant 1$, I want to prove whether or not the following equation has infinitely many solutions $(a_1,a_2,b,x)$ over the integers, and on the condition that $a_1\neq a_2\neq b$.

$$\sum_{n=1}^2 a_n^{ \ \ 2} + b^2(k-2) = \left(\sum_{n=0}^k x^n\right)^2.\tag1$$

This is to say, I want to prove that $$a_1^{ \ \ 2} + a_2^{ \ \ 2} + b^2(k - 2) = \big(\underbrace{x^n + x^{n - 1} +\cdots + x^1 + x^0}_{\text{$k$ times}}\big)^2$$ has infinitely many solutions in integers. My attempt, however, is quite exhaustive. I cannot prove that $(1)$ has infinitely many integral solutions for all $k$.


My Attempt:

I was able to prove that for all $k\in\mathbb{Z}^+$ and $x\in\mathbb{R}$, $$\sum_{n=1}^k nx^{n-1} + \sum_{\substack{n = k \\ m = 1}}^{k-1}x^n(n - 2m + 1) = \left(\sum_{n=0}^k x^n\right)^2,\tag2$$ and it appears that from this equation, I can derive proofs that $(1)$ holds truth for every $k$, but not one entire proof. With the summation that has two indices beneath the sigma but one index above it, to be clear, $$\sum_{\substack{n=k \\ m=1}}^{k-1} x^n(n-2m+1) = \left(\sum_{n=k}^{k-1}x^n\right)\sum_{m=1}^{k-1}(n-2m+1).$$However, for the sake of proving $(1)$ to be true, we consider $x\in\mathbb{Z}$.

The case $k = 1$ is easy. It just shows that $(a_2 + 1)(a_2 - 1) = (b^2 + a_1)(b^2 - a_1)$.

I $k = 2$ I

When we consider $k = 2$, we want to prove that $(*)$ there are infinitely many squares that are the sum of two squares. The following equation is thus produced from $(2)$. That is, we substitute $k = 2$ in $(2)$ and our output is as follows.

$$x^2 + 2x + 1 = (x + 1)^2$$ We can prove the statement $(*)$ from this equation. Simply, either multiply both sides by $(x - 1)^2$ to obtain, $$(x^2 - 1)^2 + (2x)^2 = (x^2 + 1)^2,\tag*{$\because (x-1)^2 = x^2 - 2x + 1$}$$ or let $2x + 1 = u^2$ for some $u\in\mathbb{Z}$ follows that $u = 2v + 1$ for some $v\in\mathbb{Z}$ to obtain, $$(2v^2 + 2v)^2 + (2v + 1)^2 = (2v^2 + 2v + 1)^2.\tag*{$\bigcirc$}$$

I $k = 3$ I

Proof: Consider the equation, $$\begin{align} y &= x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 2x + 1 \\ &= (x+1)(x^3 + x^2 + 2x) + 1 \\ &= x(x + 1)(x^2 + x + 2) + 1 \\ &= x^2(x + 1)^2 + 2x(x + 1) + 1 \ \because \ x^2 + x = x(x + 1) \\ &= (x^2 + x + 1)^2.\quad\quad\quad\quad\text{$\big($$(2)$ shows this result anyway.$\big)$}\end{align}$$ Let $3x^2 = x^2 + x^2 + x^2$ follows that, $$\begin{align} (x^2 + x + 1)^2 &= x^4 + 2x^3 + (x^2 + x^2 + x^2) + 2x + 1 \\ &= x^2(x^2 + 2x + 1) + x^2 + (x^2 + 2x + 1) \\ &= x^2 + (x + 1)^2 + x^2(x + 1)^2.\end{align}$$ Therefore, we obtain a desired result for all $x$. $$x^2 + (x+1)^2 + (x^2 + x)^2 = (x^2 + x + 1)^2.\tag*{$\bigcirc$}$$

I $k = 4$ I

Proof: Consider the equation,

$$x^6 + 2x^5 + 3x^4 + 4x^3 + 3x^2 + 2x + 1 = (x^3 + x^2 + x + 1)^2.$$ Let $3x^4 =x^4 + x^4 + x^4$ and $3x^2 = x^2 + x^2 + x^2$ follows that, $$\begin{align} (x^3 + x^2 + x + 1)^2 &= x^6 + 2x^5 + (x^4 + x^4 + x^4) + 4x^3 + (x^2 + x^2 + x^2) + 2x + 1 \\ &= x^4(x^2 + 2x + 1) + (x^2 + 2x + 1) + x^4 + x^4 + 4x^3 + x^2 + x^2 \\ &= x^4(x + 1)^2 + (x + 1)^2 + 2(x^4 + 2x^3 + x^2) \\ &= (x^2)^2(x + 1)^2 + (x + 1)^2 + 2x^2(x^2 + 2x + 1) \\ &= (x + 1)^2 + (x^3 + x^2)^2 + 2x^2(x+1)^2.\end{align}$$ Thus, for all $x$, we obtain as desired. $$(x + 1)^2 + (x^3 + x^2)^2 + 2(x^2 + x)^2 = (x^3 + x^2 + x + 1)^2.\tag*{$\bigcirc$}$$


I cannot keep proving each case for $k$ ad infinitum (forever and ever). That's impossible! There are infinitely many numbers, and so infinitely many cases! I need to build a proof for the general case $k\in\mathbb{Z}^+$, but I do not know how. Is there a proof of $(1)$ that shows it holds truth for all choices of $k$? If so, please guide me in the right direction.

Thank you in advance.

Mr Pie
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    the following equation holds truth for all {b,k,x,a n }⊂Z What does it mean for an equation to "hold true"? The LHS does not even depend on $x$, so the equality cannot hold true for "all" $x$. – dxiv Jan 25 '18 at 02:29
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    Your equations and question all seem very weird. It is not at all clear what exactly you are asking. – Fimpellizzeri Jan 25 '18 at 02:30
  • @dxiv it holds truth meaning there exist integers that satisfy the equation. Since the set of integers $\mathbb{Z}$ is infinite, it says there exist infinitely many integers that satisfy the equation. – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 02:34
  • @Fimpellizieri I am simply asking how to prove $(1)$ has infinitely many solutions in integers. I have only proven this for cases $k = 1, 2, 3, 4$ but the question asks for a proof where $k \in \mathbb{Z}_{\geqslant 1} = \mathbb{Z}^+$. That is where I have trouble. – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 02:36
  • When I say the following equation is thus produced from $(2)$ then that means the following equation is obtained when I substitute $k = 2$ in $(2)$. The cases here are put in $I\ldots I$, which are the cases of $k$. – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 02:38
  • I have tried to make your question clearer but it's still a bit of a mess. Equation $2$ for instance has one summation with two indices below it but one index above, and it's not really clear what's going on. – Fimpellizzeri Jan 25 '18 at 02:47
  • @Fimpellizieri In equation $2$, $m$ starts from $1$ and tends to $k - 1$. It may be confusing how $n = k$ but it tends to $k - 1$. I meant to write that $n = \underbrace{k, k + 1,\ldots}_{\text{$k - 1$ times}}$ – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 02:49
  • Yes it is indeed confusing. I still don't know what's going on. – Fimpellizzeri Jan 25 '18 at 02:54
  • @Fimpellizieri Well I did skip some steps to try and keep this post as brief as possible. I will edit the post to make it clearer. – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 03:01
  • @Fimpellizieri I edited the question, I hope it is clearer now to you and other audiences. – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 03:12
  • Have you ever heard of a proof by induction? – fleablood Jan 25 '18 at 04:22
  • $$\sum_{n=1}^k x^n = \frac{x^k-1}{x-1}$$ squaring that is considerably less painful. – Dan Uznanski Jan 25 '18 at 08:26

1 Answers1

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Take $a_2=0,b=0,a_1=\sum _0 ^k x^{n}$ with x arbitrary. Am I missing something or is this so trivial a question?

  • Oh yes. I forgot to mention that none of the integers $a_1$ and $a_2$ and $b$ can be equal to each other. Otherwise we do have trivial answers like that. Thank you for reminding me hahah ...... I have edited the post :) – Mr Pie Jan 25 '18 at 08:06