This is a problem from Rudin, but I wanted to add my own intuition to it. It uses Rudin's definition of Archimedean property. I'd just like to know if my version holds
If $x \in \mathbb R$, $y\in \mathbb R$ and $x<y$, then $\exists p \in \mathbb Q$ such that $x < p < y$
Since $x < y$, then $y-x>0$. Applying Archimedean property, we see $\exists n \in \mathbb Z^+$ such that $n(y-x)>1$.
Allow $A=\{i\in \mathbb Z\mid i > nx\}$. Obviously $A$ is bounded by $nx$, so take $m = \inf A$. So we have $m > nx$ and $m-1 \leq nx$ by set and $\inf$ definition.
This gives us $m-1 \leq nx < m$. Combining and rearranging with $n(y-x) > 1$ gives us $nx < m \leq nx +1 < ny \implies nx < m < ny$.
Thus $x < \frac{m}{n} < y$