In this MSE post, Artur Araujo gives an alternative proof that the preimage of a maximal ideal under a surjection is a maximal ideal:
If I may suggest, a cleaner way of proving this is by an altogether different method, bypassing elements. Since $M$ is maximal, $k:=S/M$ is a field. Since $f$ is surjective, its composition with the canonical projection $\bar{f}:R\to k$ is a surjection. This means that $\ker \bar{f}$ is a maximal ideal. Can you compute it?
I am being dumb, so I don't see how $\ker \overline{f}$ is a maximal ideal in $R$. Here is a comment I left on Artur Araujo's post:
Okay. Let $f:R→F$ be a surjective ring homomorphism, where $R$ is some (commutative?) ring and $F$ is a field. But suppose that $\ker f$ is not maximal. Then there exists an ideal $I$ in $R$ such that $\ker f \subset I \subset R$ and therefore $\{0\} \subseteq f(I) \subseteq S$. This would be a contradiction if images generally preserved strict inclusions, but I believe this is only true of injective maps. So I don't see why $\ker f$ has to be maximal in $R$.
What's going on? For instance, if $f(x) = x^2$ over the reals, then $(-1,0] \subset (-1,1)$ but $f((-1,0]) = [0,1) = f((-1,1))$, which is equality, not strict inclusion. Do images preserve strict set inclusion in this case?