Let $G$ be a group, $H$ be a subgroup of $G$, and $N$ be a normal subgroup of $G$.
Consider the quotient map (or "natural projection homomorphism")
$$ \pi: G \to G/N $$ defined by $g \mapsto gN$, for all $g \in G$.
I know that $\pi(H)$ is a subgroup of $G/N$, but I occasionally see the assertion made that $\pi(H)$ is actually a subgroup of $H$, as well. However, I can't seem to prove (or disprove) this myself (or even find a proof anywhere), which makes me think it's either trivially true or not true (or, perhaps, very hard to prove).
So, basically, is $\pi(H)$ indeed a subgroup of $H$?
(This treats the special case when $G = H$). I have to admit I am disappointed I did not think of Lubin's counterexample which is quite neat.
– Tob Ernack Dec 21 '17 at 01:24