1

It is quite time-consuming to check a complicated looking function's analyticity. Is there any trick that we can use? or is there an online tool that can check analyticity?

If two analytic function multiplied together, do we still get an analytic function?

If $f(z)$ and $g(z)$ are both analytic, then is $f(g(z))$ also analytic?

Are there any rules like these? I can not find any material.

  • 4
    You can find such material in any book on beginning complex analysis. – zhw. Dec 17 '17 at 04:14
  • Start with $g(z) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty b_n z^n$ for $|z| < r_1$, $|g(z)| < r_2$ and $f(z) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n z^n$ for $|z| < r_3$. Is $f(g(z))$ analytic, on what domain ? – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 04:25
  • The sum rule, product rule, quotient rule, chain rule are all valid for complex functions. – Robert Israel Dec 17 '17 at 04:27
  • Also, I'd remove the Cauchy-Integral Formula tag -- I don't see the relevance of that tag with your question. We can use the Cauchy-Integral formula $whenever$ a function is analytic in a simply connected domain (whereas, a $domain$ is an open, connected set) containing the simple, closed, positively-oriented contour in question; then this formula applies at any fixed point inside the contour. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 09:00

2 Answers2

1

From Wikipedia's holomorphic function page:

Because complex differentiation is linear and obeys the product, quotient, and chain rules; the sums, products and compositions of holomorphic functions are holomorphic, and the quotient of two holomorphic functions is holomorphic wherever the denominator is not zero.

... which addresses your particular examples. In fact, the material in the rest of that section is much of the first material in a Complex Analysis course. With the immediately following examples, you get a starting point of several holomorphic functions.

Eric Towers
  • 70,953
  • To restrict to holomorphic we need the holomorphic $\implies$ analytic theorem. – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 04:59
  • @reuns : OP's tags: complex-analysis, analyticity, and holomorphic-functions lead me to believe this is not a critical detail for OP. – Eric Towers Dec 17 '17 at 05:03
  • @reuns: I'm confused about your comment -- holomorphic and analytic are synonyms; see Wolfram's website http://mathworld.wolfram.com/AnalyticFunction.html concerning the terms. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 09:32
  • @Procore Holomorphic on a (connected) open set $U \subset \mathbb{C}$ means complex differentiable at every point of $U$. Analytic means given by a power series on some disk around every point of $U$. The Cauchy integral theorem and formula let us prove holomorphic functions are analytic. – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 09:37
  • @reuns your definition of a holomorphic function is equivalent to your definition of an analytic function -- the text I referenced, and others, defines an analytic function in the exact same way of your definition a holomorphic function...see the link I posted. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 09:41
  • @Procore Not at all. Analytic means given locally by power series. In real analysis differentiable doesn't imply $C^\infty$ and even less analytic... (for example $f(x)=|x|^2$ is differentiable but not $C^2$). Holomorphic $\implies$ analytic is the main theorem of complex analysis. – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 09:42
  • I meant $x | x|$ – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 09:49
  • @reuns: The definitions are equivalent for a single-variable complex functions -- see here that backs both of our claims: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/573984/difference-between-analytic-and-holomorphic-function. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 09:50
  • @Procore What do you not understand with "that's a non-trivial theorem, not an equivalence of definition" ? Your linked post is a nonsense. Do you understand what means "given by a power series" ? – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 09:58
  • @reuns: Whatever you say - I'm done commenting on this -- overall this post regards single-variable complex functions. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 09:59
  • @Procore Do you understand that "complex differentiable at every point" and "given by a power series around every point" are two different things ? It is obvious the latter implies the former. But it is a non-trivial theorem that the former implies the latter. When we say analytic, we mean analytic. Sometimes we say holomorphic when we mean analytic (by the theorem). – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 10:01
  • @reuns: Sure they are different objects in general. The difference comes in play when we are working with REAL functions to which has nothing to do with the OP's question. My point is that this post strictly concerns complex functions of a single variable, and there is no point to distinguish between holomorphic and analytic complex functions of a single-variable. The link I posted explicitly explains what I'm saying and is not nonsense. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 10:17
  • @reuns: Also, to be even more concrete and fair, the means to distinguish between holomorphic and analytic also comes into play with complex functions of several variables, in addition to real functions, for the record...but I will agree that the two are not mutually exclusive in certain contexts (I think this is what Eric Towers was saying also). – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 10:29
  • Correction: ...I will agree that the two are mutually exclusive... – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 10:55
0

Following zhw's comment -- try Saff's & Snider's, $Fundamentals~of~Complex~Analysis$ with Applications to Engineering, Science, and Mathematics, 3rd Ed.

I'll post some theorems that may help you. The analyticity property of a function $z=x+iy\longmapsto^{^{\!\!\!\!\!f}} u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$ exhibits a connection between the real and imaginary parts of said function.

First, we recall the Cauchy-Riemann Equations. To keep it simple (I'm going to use capital letters here to distinguish from the notation in the theorems below), we consider the (complex-valued) function $F(z)=U(x,y)+iV(x,y)$, where $z\in\text{Dom}(f)\subseteq\mathbb{C}$, and we assume that $F$ is differentiable at some $z_{0}\in\text{Dom}(F)$. If you would like the derivation, I'm happy to provide it; however, we can derive:

$\dfrac{\partial U}{\partial x}=\dfrac{\partial V}{\partial y}~~$ as well as $~~\dfrac{\partial U}{\partial y}=-\dfrac{\partial V}{\partial x}$ which are called the Cauchy-Riemann equations.

Now, here are some theorems regarding analyticity as a sufficient and necessary condition, respectively, in connection with these equations. The first of two theorems is as followed.

Theorem 1 A necessary condition for a function $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$ to be differentiable at a point $z_{0}$ is that the Cauchy-Riemann equations must hold at $z_{0}$. Consequently, if $f$ is analytic in an open set $G$, then the Cauchy-Riemann equations must hold at all points of $G$.

The second theorem is as followed.

Theorem 2 Let $f(z)=u(x,y)+iv(x,y)$ be defined in some open set $G$ containing a point $z_{0}$. If the first partial derivatives of $u,v$ exist in $G$, are continuous at $z_{0}$, an satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations at $z_{0}$, then $f$ is differentiable at $z_{0}$. Consequently, if the first partial derivatives are continuous and satisfy the Cauchy-Riemann equations at all points of $G$, then $f$ is analytic in $G$.

If you would like proofs of these theorems, I'm also happy to provide them (I omitted the proofs and the derivation of the Cauchy-Riemann equations in the interest of saving space -- I found a free, downloadable *.pdf of the book I referenced above here...see page 73, 74, etc., which is where this material, and their proofs, can be found). To be mathematically precise, the concept with the second theorem is that the Cauchy-Riemann equations alone are not sufficient to ensure differentiability -- we need continuity of the first partials of $u=\text{Re}(f)$ and $v=\text{Im}(f)$ in addition to the Cauchy-Riemann equations holding to gives us analyticity in our open set $G$. On the other hand, the Cauchy-Riemann equations give a necessary condition for differentiability (namely analyticity).

Lastly and for example regarding the contrapositive of the first theorem, if you can find at least one point contained in some fixed, open set such that the Cauchy-Riemann equations do not hold, then the function can not be analytic there (to which this point may be a singularity and the given function is not analytic in this open set).

Procore
  • 634
  • Of course you need to distinguish holomorphic and analytic when teaching and studying complex analysis. http://kryakin.org/am2/Stein-Shakarchi-2-Complex%20analysis.pdf . You need to realize the Cauchy integral theorem for analytic functions is quite easy, while the true Cauchy integral theorem (for holomorphic functions) is hard. Indeed Cauchy only proved it for holomorphic functions with continuous derivative. – reuns Dec 17 '17 at 10:22
  • My point above resides at the bottom of page 9 in Steins book from your link...I agreed above that, in more intricate contexts, the definitions are mutually exclusive which is an important in more advanced concepts of complex analysis, but in this post the terms are not mutually exclusive...apologies for my typo on this above. – Procore Dec 17 '17 at 10:58