Since the lemmas and theorems of algebraic geometry are beyond my knowledge and mathematical maturity at this point, I have struggled to somehow intuitively/visually grasp its basic concepts from the well-written book An Invitation to Algebraic Geometry by Karen E. Smith, et al and my best friends, Wikipedia and the MSE community.
Generally speaking, when something ends to the suffix -ization, it suggests the performance of an action. So, my question is:
Is the localization of a commutative ring at a prime ideal (or other multiplicative sets) in some sense a way of looking at the things locally?
I already have some thoughts on this that I would like to share them with you. Also, a discussion with @rschwieb on this question provoked my curiosity.
So, Hilbert's Nullstellensatz gives an algebro-geometric dictionary to think about varieties. In particular, when we work over an algebraically closed field, solutions of polynomial equations define geometric varieties that correspond to radical ideals in the polynomial ring over the field. This dictionary reverses the order of subset inclusion, translating bigger varieties to smaller radical ideals and vice-versa. A maximal ideal which is in some sense the biggest radical ideal becomes the smallest variety, a point. This dictionary also translates unions of varieties to intersections of their radical ideals. Therefore, a prime ideal is a radical ideal that its variety is in some sense indecomposable. Krull's dimension becomes a number that's supposedly the maximum dimension of these indecomposable sub-varieties as expected.
Now, when we localize a commutative ring by a multiplicative set, we get a ring that has only one maximal ideal. In particular, when we do this with the complement of a prime ideal $P$ as a multiplicative set, it feels like we are crushing every point of the variety outside of the indecomposable component corresponding to $P$ to a single point, which is the maximal ideal of the localized polynomial ring. It seems like the big picture works.
So, I am looking for more evidence about this. Maybe a few elementary explanations and well-versed related proofs. I am looking for more intuition. What results in algebraic geometry, in particular about localization, can be thought of as examples along this line of thought? Are the things I have said correct? Why is the localization of $\mathbb{Z}$ equal to $\mathbb{Q}$? Any pictorial explanation? Also, any more information regarding other concepts explained with this algebro-geometric language is welcome.
At the end, if moderators found my question suitable for Math Overflow, please do move my question to Math Overflow if you think I can get better explanations and answers there.