I know this question has been asked on this site before (here, here and a few more), but here I have less assumptions. $f: X \to Y$ is uniformly continuous such that $X \subseteq \mathbb{R}$, but I am not assuming anything on $Y$, i.e. It is a general metric space, not necessarily complete. I am also not assuming that $X$ is closed.
Is this, generally, true that $f$ maps bounded sets in $X$ to bounded sets in $Y$? My professor seems to suggest so, but it seems impossible without compactness, either assuming $X$ is closed or that $Y$ is complete such that there is a uniformly continuous extension of $f$ to $\mathrm{Cl}(A)$.
If it is not possible, can you provide me with a counterexample?