How does one prove rigorously that ordinal comparison is trichotomous; that is, exactly one of the following is true:
- $(A, <_A) \cong (B, <_B)$
- $\exists a \in A : (A, <_A)/a \cong (B, <_B)$
- $\exists b \in B : (A, <_A) \cong (B, <_B)/b$
where the notation $(X, <_X)/u$ means the initial segment of the well-ordering $(X,<_X)$ bounded by $u$.
I have no real idea why this makes sense; I found this proof:
Let Z be the set of all z in X such that I(z) is order-isomorphic to an initial segment of Y. If z is in Z and w< z then it is easy to see that w is in Z. Hence, either Z is all of X or it is the initial segment I(u), where u is the least element of X that does not belong to Z. Next, I claim that if z is in Z, then there is exactly one isomorphism from I(z) to an initial segment of Y. For if not, let w be minimal such that there are two distinct order-isomorphisms f and g from I(w) to initial segments of Y. Let v be minimal such that f(v) does not equal g(v). Then f and g must agree on the initial segment I(v), and f(v) and g(v) are then forced to be the least element of Y that does not belong to f(I(v)). This observation allows us to define an order-isomorphism from Z into Y - each z in Z maps to the least element of Y not included in f(I(z)). Then either f(Z)=Y, in which case we are done, or f(Z) is a proper subset of Y, in which case Z must be the whole of X or we'd be able to extend f.
But it's not succinct at all. I also have a textbook proof that states
Let $f = \{ (v,w) : v \in \alpha \wedge w \in \beta \wedge (\alpha, <)/v \cong (\beta,<)/w \}$ and note that $f$ is an isomorphism from some initial segment of A onto some initial segment of $B$, and that these initial segments cannot both be proper.
which seems insufficiently rigorous for my purposes.
(EDIT: I removed half of this question, since it was buried at the end and unclear, and will ask it again.)