I know there is a version of Fejer's theorem stating:"If $f$ is a function in $L^1(\mathbb{(- \pi, \pi)})$ then its Fejer's sums converge to $f$ in $L^1$ norm".
The question is: is this still true for Fourier transforms? I mean, is it true that $$\lim_{N\to \infty}\frac{1}{2 \pi} \int_{-N}^{N} \left(1- \frac{|\phi|}{N} \right) \widehat{f(\phi)} e^{ix \phi} d\phi = f(x)$$ in $L^1(\mathbb{R})$ for $f \in L^1(\mathbb{R})$?
I know this is true for continuous functions, and that the proof is very similar for both Fejer's sums and for this integral (you still use a convolution).
The problem here is that for the proof above (both for Fourier series and Fourier transform) you evaluate the $f$ at some point and say it is bounded. So how do you do for $L^1$ functions, whose value is not defined in single points?