(I go into more detail bellow, but a "fraction of all $\mathbb{N}$" is like saying "half of all numbers are even.")
When thinking about this, I had some trouble trying to figure out what is the best way to approach this question. I narrowed it down to three possible answers, and I am not sure which one would be considered correct:
A1) There is no such thing as a fraction of all $\mathbb{N}$ consisting of only the powers of 2, it does not exist, or it cannot exist.
A2) There is a fraction of all $\mathbb{N}$ that contain all of the powers of 2.
A3) There is no such thing for all $\mathbb{N}$, but this can be answered if the given set was a sequence ending at some number $c$.
Are any one of these three answers the right answer? Or is there a different explanation that best answers this question?
For more context, here is how I came across this question and what I worked out on this problem:
I came up with this question while studying the Collatz Conjecture. (As a quick summary/refresher, if a number $x$ is odd, multiply by 3 and add 1, but if even divide $x$ by two, and go on forever until you reach 1.)
I looked at a modified Collatz Rule $3x+5$ ($3x+5$ replaces the odd rule), and not only are there other loops, but it seems to be that the different loops have different "sizes". Afterwards, I wondered if the sequence of the powers of 2 can be tied to some ratio to all $\mathbb{N}$, and whether or not that gives any context to my previous question or the Collatz Conjecture in general.
When I think of "a fraction of all $\mathbb{N}$", I am thinking of something like "half of all $\mathbb{N}$ are even" or for $3x+5$, "It seems to be all multiples of 5 go to the 20-10-5 loop, and exactly 1/5 of all $\mathbb{N}$ are divisible by 5, therefore the 20-10-5 loop for the Collatz rule $3x+5$ contains 1/5 of all $\mathbb{N}$, assuming the Collatz Conjecture is true."
I came to the "1/5" conclusion like this:
If {$\mathbb{N}$} = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 12, ...
and the multiples of 5 are = 5, 10, 15, ...
the multiples of 5 are found every 5th term for {$\mathbb{N}$}.
...So I did exactly that for the powers of 2... The only problem is there is a power of 2 for every $2^n$th term, which basically iterates the question.
I know the sequence of the powers of 2 converges to zero, which in my mind is not very helpful, but A1) may be the answer....
...except that I found this "formula" that redefines the even numbers, which made me more confused and less convinced all of the powers of 2 are a bunch of added up zeros to get 1.
While studying the Collatz Conjecture, I came across the sequence A007814 a lot:
0, 1, 0, 2, 0, 1, 0, 3, 0, 1, 0, 2, 0, 1, 0, 4, 0, 1, ...
And according to this sequence, I could pull off the same trick I did with the number of 5's for {$\mathbb{N}$}, only instead count the number of powers of 2:
0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, ...
which is really (1 * $2^0$), (1 * $2^2$), (1 * $2^3$), (1 * $2^4$), ... and so on.
Therefore, I came up with $a*2^N$ to represent this sequence, where $a$ is any positive odd number and $N$ is the starting point of the sequence {N} = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ...
Therefore, assuming all $a$ are iterated at once, $a*2^N$ where $N$ starts at zero = {$\mathbb{N}$}, half of {$\mathbb{N}$} when $N$ starts at 1, and so on. Since this new sequence also converges to zero, I suspected A2) to be the most plausible answer.