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I'm not sure how to actually show/explain this. I only recall learning harmonic functions being functions that satisfy Laplace's Equation.

Let $f(z)=\frac{1+z}{1-z}$ for all $z\in\mathbb{C}\backslash\{1\}$.
a) Show that $f$ maps $\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z|<1\}$ onto $\{w\in\mathbb{C}:\mathrm{Re}(w)>0\}$.
b) Explain why $H\circ f$ is harmonic in $\{z\in\mathbb{C}:|z|<1\}$ if $H$ is harmonic in $\{w\in\mathbb{C}:\mathrm{Re}(w)>0\}$.

I've done $(a)$ by simply inverting $f$ and using the condition that $|z|<1$.
However, I'm not sure how this is used (if it is) in part (b).

  • I do not have enough reputation to comment on the answer in the duplicate thread.
    For "A function which is everywhere locally harmonic is globally harmonic, showing that the statement is true.", why does being locally harmonic imply it is globally harmonic? Is this by Identity Theorem or something?
    – Mr. Bromwich I Nov 10 '17 at 02:20

1 Answers1

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Whilst $\text{holomorphic}\circ\text{harmonic}$ might not be harmonic (for instance, $\sin\circ\Re$ is not harmonic), it is true that $\text{harmonic}\circ \text{holomorphic}=\text{harmonic}$.

An algebraic way to prove it: call $\partial f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial z},\ \overline\partial f=\frac{\partial f}{\partial\overline z}$ and $\Delta^c=\partial\overline\partial=\overline\partial\partial=\frac14\Delta=\frac14\frac{\partial^2 }{\partial x^2}+\frac14\frac{\partial^2 }{\partial y^2}$. Recall the identities $\overline\partial\left[ \overline f\right]=\overline{\partial f}$ and the chain rule $$\partial[f\circ g]=\partial f\circ g\cdot \partial g+\overline\partial f\circ g\cdot \partial\overline g\\\overline\partial[f\circ g]=\partial f\circ g\cdot \overline\partial g+\overline\partial f\circ g\cdot \overline\partial\overline g$$

\begin{align}\Delta^c[H\circ f]&=\partial\left[\partial H\circ f\cdot\overline \partial f+\overline \partial H\circ f\cdot\overline\partial\left[\overline f\right]\right]=\\&=\partial\overline\partial f\cdot\partial H\circ f+\overline\partial f\cdot\partial\left[\partial H\circ f\right]+\partial\overline\partial\left[\overline f\right]\cdot\overline\partial H\circ f+\overline\partial\left[\overline f\right]\cdot\partial\left[\overline\partial H\circ f\right]=\\(H\text{ harm})&=\Delta^c f\cdot\partial H\circ f+\overline\partial f\cdot\partial f\cdot\partial^2H\circ f+\overline{\Delta^c f}\cdot\overline\partial H\circ f+\overline{\partial f}\cdot\partial\overline f\cdot\overline\partial^2H\circ f=\\&=\Delta^c f\cdot\partial H\circ f+\overline\partial f\cdot\partial f\cdot\partial^2H\circ f+\overline{\Delta^c f}\cdot\overline\partial H\circ f+\overline{\partial f\cdot\overline\partial f}\cdot\overline\partial^2H\circ f\end{align}

And it's apparent that this quantity is $0$ on any $\Omega$ where $f$ is holomorphic (because the condition of holomorphy is $\overline\partial f(z)=0$ for all $z\in \Omega$).

  • Thank you. I'll have a good read over and over again on that as I haven't seen this before.
    On another note: I had just thought of this and was wondering if it is valid.
    Since $H$ is harmonic, then $H$ is the real part of some holomorphic function $g$. Now since $f$ is holomorphic, then $g\circ f$ is also holomorphic. So, $\mathrm{Re}(g\circ f)$ is also harmonic (I think because real parts of holomorphic function is harmonic), which is exactly $H\circ f$.
    – Mr. Bromwich I Nov 09 '17 at 11:01
  • Oh, true. You're right. My mind went off for a second. –  Nov 09 '17 at 11:26
  • No problem $ \ \ \ $ – Mr. Bromwich I Nov 09 '17 at 11:27
  • Does this seem sufficient though? I tried searching for related questions but I couldn't find any. And I couldn't see anyone use my line of thinking either – Mr. Bromwich I Nov 09 '17 at 11:32