I would like any feedback on the soundness and form of this proof. Please excuse any idiosyncrasies due to the fact that I am self-taught.
Setup and Proof
Consider a language $\mathcal{L}$ which, apart all the first-order logic apparatus, it also has:
- two binary operator symbols $\hat{+}$ and $\hat{\times}$ (which will represent addition and multiplication)
- a unary operator $\iota$ (which will represent the multiplicative inverse operator)
- binary relation symbol $\hat{<}$
- a countable set of distinguished element symbols $\left\{\hat{n}_i\right\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ (which will represent all the non-negative integers)
- Crucially a last distinguished element symbol $\hat{\partial}$, which, if the proof is correct, will represent the "first" infinitesimal.
The binary operators, binary relation and the two symbols $\hat{n}_0$ and $\hat{n}_1$ allow $\mathcal{L}$ to talk about ordered fields. The rest of the symbols are for the statement of the axioms.
The $\mathcal{L}$-theory I am looking to satisfy is a set $T = R \cup N \cup H$ where:
- $R$ is the finite set of sentences which would require the underlying set of a model for $T$ to be a totally ordered field, with $\hat{n}_0$ and $\hat{n}_1$ being the additive and multiplicative identities respectively,
- $N = \{\hat{n}_{i+1} = \hat{n}_{i} + \hat{n}_{1}\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$
- $H = \left\{ \phi_i \right\}_{i\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a countable set of sentences involving $\hat{\partial}$. Specifically:
$$\begin{align} \phi_0 &= \hat{n}_{0} < \hat{\partial}\\ \phi_i &= \hat{\partial} < \iota(\hat{n}_i) \phantom{ejfnkjefb}\mbox{for $i\geq1$ } \end{align}$$
Proposition
The theory $T$ is satisfiable.
Proof
$R \cup N$ is trivially satisfiable by a model with $\mathbb{R}$ as an underlying set for example. Furthermore, any theory $R \cup N \cup J$ , where $J$ is any finite subset of $H$ is satisfiable since it suffices to map $\hat{\partial}$ to the inverse of the successor of the largest index of the $\phi_i$ in $J$ . Thus by the Compactness Theorem, $T$ is also satisfiable.
Comment on the proof
Adding the axioms $N$ felt a little unnatural, but I wanted to be able to talk about $\partial$ being smaller than any of the elements of $1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4 \dots$
Context
I am reading a very interesting book by Lakoff and Nunez called Where Mathematics Comes From, interested in the neural and cognitive origins of mathematical ideas. I just finished a chapter on the infinitesimals which was the clearest exposition of why these numbers are so alluring as well as divisive.
In the relevant chapter, they provide a sketch of a model theory proof that a set with at least one infinitesimal exists, but I am not completely convinced by it.
I don't know much about model theory, but I really like what Lakoff and Nunez are getting to, so I read a short introductory paper by David Marker and tried to write my own proof. I have looked up the proof to the Completeness Theorem, and I still have to wrap my head around that, but for the moment I trust Godel and Marker.