Let $V$ be an irreducible variety of dimension 0 over an algebraically closed field $k$.
I understand that the function field $K(V)$ is equal to $k$. The answer to algebraic variety of dimension 0 uses this fact to conclude that $k[x_1,\dots,x_n]/I_V=k$, where $I_V$ is the ideal of $V$. Why is this true?
(The definitions I am using are the same as those in the linked question.)