Yes: such an integral always converges under the conditions you described.
For clarity of the argument, I'll assume that $a = 0$, but it can be adapted for any $a$. Break up the interval $[0, \infty)$ into a union:
$$[0, \infty) = [0, \pi] \cup [\pi, 2 \pi] \cup [2 \pi, 3 \pi] \cup \dots$$
Then, compare the value of the integrals on adjacent regions. Note that
\begin{align*}
\left|\int_{\pi}^{2 \pi} f(x) \sin(x) \, \textrm{d} x \right| &= \int_{\pi}^{2 \pi} \left| f(x) \sin(x) \right| \, \textrm{d} x\\
&= \int_0^{\pi} \left|f(u + \pi) [\sin(u + \pi)] \right| \, \textrm{d} u \\
&= \int_0^{\pi} \left|f(u + \pi) [-\sin(u)] \right| \, \textrm{d} u \\
&= \int_0^{\pi} f(u+ \pi) \sin(u) \, \textrm{d} u \\
& \leq \int_0^{\pi} f(u) \sin(u) \, \textrm{d} u \\
&= \left| \int_0^{\pi} f(x) \sin(x) \, \textrm{d} x \right|
\end{align*}
and the same argument can be applied to any adjacent intervals. Thus, the integral terms $a_n := \int_{n \pi}^{(n+1)\pi} f(x) \, \textrm{d} x$ for $n \geq 0$ form a sequence that satisfies the alternating series test hypotheses.
One caveat: these integrals will converge if considered as Riemann integrals -- but as Lebesgue integrals, they may not. In order for the Lebesgue integrals to converge, you also have to guarantee that $a_0 + a_2 + a_4 + \dots$ and $a_1 + a_3 + a_5 + \dots$ each converge to a finite value.