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Consider a group , where any element has $ord(g)=2$. Could we say that $ G \cong F_{2} $? My idea was : consider all generating elements and say $g_{1} = e_{1} \dots$ am I right?

openspace
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2 Answers2

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The groups $G$ such that $g^2=e$ for all $g\in G$ are exactly the $\Bbb F_2$-vector spaces (therefore much more stuff than your guess). Exercise for you is showing the crucial part of this: any such group $G$ must be abelian.

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No, let $(\Bbb Z_2,+)$, and consider for instance $\Bbb Z_2\times \Bbb Z_2$. Every element has order two, but $G$ has four elements. More generally the product of $n$ copies of $\Bbb Z_2$ has $2^n$ elements all of them of order $2$.

InsideOut
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