Construct a Lebesgue measurable subset A of $\mathbb{R}$ so that for all reals $a<b$, $$0<m(A\cap(a,b))<b-a $$ under the usual Lebesgue measure $m$.
And then show that if $m(A\cap(a,b))\leq\frac{b-a}{2}$ for any $a<b\in\mathbb{R}$, then $m(A)=0$.
The answer to the first part is a dublicate, but as far as the second bit I am feeling stumped. Any thoughts? Thank you for the help.