This is Velleman's exercise 3.6.8.b (And of course not a duplicate of Uniqueness proof for $\forall A\in\mathcal{P}(U)\ \exists!B\in\mathcal{P}(U)\ \forall C\in\mathcal{P}(U)\ (C\setminus A=C\cap B)$):
Prove that $∀A ∈ \mathscr P(U)∃!B ∈ \mathscr P(U) ∀C ∈ \mathscr P(U) (C ∩ A = C \setminus B)$.
$\mathscr P$ is used to denote the power set.
$∃!B$ means that "there exists a unique set B such that..."
And here's my proof of it:
Proof.
Existence. Let $B = (U\setminus A) ∈ \mathscr P(U)$. Then clearly for all $A ∈ \mathscr P(U)$ and $C ∈ \mathscr P(U)$, $C\setminus B = C\setminus (U\setminus A) = C ∩ A$.
Uniqueness. To see that $B$ is unique, we choose some $B'$ in $\mathscr P(U)$ such that for all $A ∈ \mathscr P(U)$ and $C ∈ \mathscr P(U)$, $C ∩ A = C \setminus B')$. Then in particular, taking $C = U$, we can conclude that $U ∩ A = U \setminus B'$ which is equivalent to $A = U \setminus B'$ and thus $B' = U\setminus A = B$.
Here is my question:
Is my proof valid? Particularly "$C\setminus (U\setminus A) = C ∩ A$" and "$A = U \setminus B'$ and thus $B' = U\setminus A = B$" parts. In other words, do the mentioned parts need more explanation\justification?
Thanks.