Let $f : X \longrightarrow Y$ be continuous, and let $A \subseteq X$. Show that $f(\overline A) \subseteq \overline{f(A)}$.
My attempt
Let $y \in f(\overline A)$. Then there exists $x \in \overline A$ such that $f(x) = y$. Now let us take an open neighbourhood $V$ of $y$ in $Y$ arbitrarily. If we can show that $V \cap f(A) \neq \emptyset$ then our purpose will be served.
Now since $f(x) = y \in V$, we have $x \in f^{-1} (V)$. Since $x \in \overline A$ and $f^{-1} (V)$ is open in $X$ (since $f$ is continuous), we have that $f^{-1} (V) \cap A \neq \emptyset$.
Let $z \in f^{-1} (V) \cap A$. Then $f(z) \in V \cap f(A)$, which proves that $V \cap f(A) \neq \emptyset$ and we are done.
Is my reasoning correct at all? Please verify it.