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Let $I_m=[m!+2,m!+m]\cap\mathbb N$ an "interval" of $\mathbb N$; it can obviously be as long as we want and it is easy to prove $I_m$ does not contain any prime. Prove the following: $$\text { if }n^2+(n+1)^2\in I_m\text{ then }4n^2+1\notin I_M$$

Note that if in a large interval $I_m$ could exist $n$ denying what is proposed here, then we would have found a counterexample to the conjecture in here

Ataulfo
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  • Pardon my ignorance, but why is it "easy to prove $I_m$ does not contain any prime"? If $m$ is very large, the length of the interval is very large at $m-2$, so isn't it likely going to contain a prime? – Randall Aug 13 '17 at 01:40
  • @Randall $k$ divides $k!+k=k((k-1)!+1)$ – uSir470888 Aug 13 '17 at 01:41
  • Interesting. I need to think about this. – Randall Aug 13 '17 at 01:47
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    Wait, no I don't. It's obvious. Thank you. – Randall Aug 13 '17 at 01:59
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    Hello Randall: everyone is ignorant of many things. Regards. – Ataulfo Aug 13 '17 at 02:00
  • so expand and simplify $n^2+(n+1)^2=2n^2+2n+1$ so it can be restated as:$$\text { if }2n^2+2n+1\in I_m\text{ then }4n^2+1\notin I_m$$ –  Aug 13 '17 at 02:20
  • @Piquito , Could you explaine me, how you will find a counterexample; If there is a such $n$? – Davood Aug 13 '17 at 14:54
  • I don't see how this provides a counter-example to the conjecture in your link. – DanielWainfleet Aug 13 '17 at 18:59
  • @DanielWainfleet: For $2n+1$ there are $n$ distinct sums $a+b=2n+1$ and $n$ sums $a^2+b^2$ which are included between $4n^2+1$ and $(n+1)^2+n^2$. If you have an interval $I$ containing these $n$ sums of squares and $I$ does not contain any prime you get the conclusion. The fact that there are intervals as large as we want without any prime suggest this way in order trying to find out a counterexample. – Ataulfo Aug 14 '17 at 12:26
  • OK. But even if $4n^2+1\in I_M$ for some $M$, you have to consider whether $a^2+b^2\in I_K$ for some $a+b=2n+1$ with $1<a<n$ and some $K.$ – DanielWainfleet Aug 14 '17 at 15:39

2 Answers2

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Remark(I): At first notice that: $\dfrac{3+\sqrt{9+4}}{2} \leq \dfrac{4+4}{2}=4$ , so for $4 \leq n$ we have:

$$0 \leq n^2-3n+1 \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ 3n^2+3n+2 \leq 4n^2+1 \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \\ \dfrac{3}{2}\Big(2n^2+2n+1 \Big) < 4n^2+1 \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ \dfrac{3}{2}\Big(n^2+(n+1)^2 \Big) < 4n^2+1 . $$



Remark(II): On the other hand let $4 \leq m$, then we have:

$2 < (m-1)!$, i.e. $1 < \dfrac{(m-1)!}{2}$ multiplying both sides by $m$ we get:

$$m < \dfrac{m!}{2} \ \ \Longrightarrow \ \ m!+m < m!+ \dfrac{m!}{2} = \dfrac{3}{2} m! \ \ \ \ . $$







Suppose on contrary that $4n^2+1 \in I_m $.

Now notice that sicce both of $n^2+(n+1)^2$ and $4n^2+1$

belongs to the interval $[m!+2,m!+m]$, therefor we have:

$$ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ m! < m!+2 \leq n^2+(n+1)^2 \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{(III)} \ , \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \text {and} \ \ \ \ \\ 4n^2+1 \leq m!+m \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \text{(IV)} .$$


$\color{Red}{\text{First case}}$: Let $m$ and $n$ are both greater or equal than $4$,

i.e. $4 \leq m$ and $4 \leq n$.

In this case we have:

$$\dfrac{3}{2} m! \overset{ \tiny{ \text{III} } }{<} \dfrac{3}{2}\Big(n^2+(n+1)^2 \Big) \overset{ \tiny{ \text{Rmk(I)} } }{<} 4n^2+1 \overset{ \tiny{ \text{IV} } }{\leq} m!+m \overset{ \tiny{ \text{Rmk(II)} } }{<} \dfrac{3}{2} m! \ \ \ \ , $$

so we have: $\dfrac{3}{2} m! < \dfrac{3}{2} m!$ ,which is an obvious contradiction. So this case is immpossible!


$\color{Red}{\text{Second case}}$: Let $4 \leq m$ and $n \leq 3$.

In this case by the (III) inequality we have:

$$26= 4!+2 \leq m! + 2 \overset{ \tiny{ \text{III} } }{\leq} \Big(n^2+(n+1)^2 \Big) \leq 9+16=25 \ , $$

which is again an obvious contradiction!


$\color{Red}{\text{Third case}}$: Let $m \leq 3$ and $4 \leq n$.

In this case by the (IV) inequality we have:

$$265= 4.(4)^2+1 \leq 4n^2+1 \overset{ \tiny{ \text{IV} } }{\leq} m!+m \leq 3!+3=9 \ ,$$

which is again an obvious contradiction!


$\color{Red}{\text{Fourth case}}$: Let $m \leq 3$ and $n \leq 3$.

In this case we have the following sub-cases:

  • $m=3$, then we have: $I_3=[8,9]=\{ 8, 9 \}$. So $n^2+(n+1)^2=8$ or $n^2+(n+1)^2=9$, but none of them have a solution.

  • $m=2$, then we have: $I_2=[6,6]=\{ 6 \}$. So $n^2+(n+1)^2=6$ , but it does'nt have a solution.

  • $m=1$, then we have: $I_1=[3,2]=\phi$.




At the end, it looks, that it was better; if I have been organized the cases as follows:

$\color{Green}{\text{First case}}$: $\color{Yellow}{4 \leq m}$ and $4 \leq n$.


$\color{Green}{\text{Second case}}$: $\color{Yellow}{4 \leq m}$ and $n \leq 3$.


$\color{Purple}{\text{Third case}}$: $\color{Yellow}{m} \color{Orange}{\leq} \color{Yellow}{3}$

Davood
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  • In the link it has been said that the conjecture has been verified till $10^8$ so the minimum you need for $m$ is $12$ because $11!\lt 10^8$ – Ataulfo Aug 14 '17 at 12:46
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Assume that $2n^2+2n+1 \in [x!+2,x!+x]$ and we want to show that $4n^2+1 \not \in [y!+2,y!+y]$ for some $y>x$.

First see that $4n^2+1 <2(2n^2+2n+1)$ so $\frac{4n^2+1}{2n^2+2n+1} \leq 2$.

Secondly see that $y!+2 > x! +x $ for all $x>2$ , because at least $y=x+1$ so $(x+1) * x! +2 > 2 x! +2x $ for all $x>2$ thus $\frac{y!+2}{x!+x} > 2$.

Which means that $\frac{4n^2+1}{2n^2+2n+1} < 2 < \frac{y!+2}{x!+x}$ in other words if $2n^2+2n+1 \in [x!+2,x!+x]$ then $4n^2+1 \not\in [y!+2,y!+y]$.

  • You have a good idea but some details need clarifying. If $y>x\geq 2$ then $y!+2\geq 2(x!+x)$ because $$y!+2-2(x!+x)\geq x!(x+1)+2-x!\cdot 2-2x=(x-1)(x!-2)\geq 0.$$..... So if $y>x\geq 2$ and $n^2+(n+1)^2\in I_x$ then $$4n^2+1<2 (n^2+(n+1)^2)\leq 2(x!+x)\leq y!+2.$$ (Note the "$<$" in that.) – DanielWainfleet Aug 14 '17 at 16:18
  • @DanielWainfleet thank you, this was what in mind but i really have a hard time explaining in English since it's not my native-language, non the less its a complete proof. –  Aug 14 '17 at 20:10
  • It occurred to me that modern mathematical "grammar" is very much like English grammar. In particular, the order of words is crucial. And that this is not an objective necessity but a method of communicating. In Latin there are some (short) sentences that are unchanged by any permutation of the words, because of its "case-endings". In German two or more words can be joined to make one word, which can remove ambiguities that occur in English. In English there is a grammatically correct sentence in which the last 6 words, in order, are "to from out of up for". – DanielWainfleet Aug 15 '17 at 17:12