I was searching around for whether or not I could use the Euclidean distance with complex numbers because it seems to make sense but I was struggling to really know. I found someone say that it is true that we can use the euclidean distance because $\mathbb{C}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^2$ and that just doesn't seem right to me at all, however when I research it I keep finding conflicting information.
I think I'm misunderstanding what isomorphic means here, because it seems to me that group operations aren't preserved between the two.