A result I would like to know is if there are infinitely primes congruent to $1 \pmod 4$, with fractional part in an interval strictly contained in $\left(0, \dfrac 1 4 \right)$. The title question seems to be true, and seems to be a natural way to prove the above.
Here the case for all primes is proven. However, as I am not a number theorist, I do not follow the argument too well. For my case, I would like a reference to an appropriate source, and maybe a proof which can be easily understood after finding the source.
Another way to look at it would be a generalisation of the result by Glyn Harman in On the distribution of $\sqrt p$ modulo one to this set of $p$. Unfortunately, I have not been able to find this either.