Claim
$f, g : [a, b] → R$ be of bounded variation. Then show that $fg$ is of bounded variation.
To prove above claim, I would like to derive the fact such as $\mid f(x_i) g(x_i)-f(x_{i-1})g(x_{i-1})\mid\le\mid f(x_i) -f(x_{i-1})\mid \mid g(x_i)-g(x_{i-1})\mid$ (*)
any advice to handle this absolute inequality so that I could prove (*)?