My idea to show this is through the inverse function theorem. I know that, since A is an open set, we can use the theorem and show that all of f(A) will also be an open set (with the conditions that we have specifically) but how do I go from there to formally show that just the real part of f(A) is open as well.
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The topology on $\mathbb{C}$ is the product topology on $\mathbb{R}^2$ for which the projections are open.
In my opinion, you have done the hard part of showing that $f(A)$ is open using the inverse function theorem.
C. Falcon
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I'll use $C = f(A)$ for convenience. We know $C$ is open, so let $x \in \Re(C)$. Then there is some $z \in C$ with $\Re(z) =x$, but $C$ open so there is an $\epsilon > 0$ with $B_\epsilon(z) \subset C$. But the real part of this ball is just an interval $(x-\epsilon, x+\epsilon)$, which we know is entirely contained in $\Re(C)$, hence $\Re(C)$ is open.
B. Mehta
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