Suppose $(A_i,\tau_i)$ are topological spaces for $i \in I$ we denote the product topology as $(\Pi A_i, \tau_p)$ and $\pi_i$ denotes the $i_{th}$ projection map.
Now I need to show that the cone $(\pi_i: (\Pi A_i,\tau_p)\rightarrow A_i)_{i\in I}$ is a terminal cone for the family of objects (topological spaces) $(A_i)_{i\in I}$ in $\text{Top}$. By Terminal cone I mean that for any other cone $(f_i: (Y,\sigma)\rightarrow A_i)_{i\in I}$ there is a unique morphism $h:(Y,\sigma)\rightarrow (\Pi A_i,\tau_p)$ such that $\pi_i h = f_i$.
My idea here is to take $h$ as the evaluation map, where $h(y)$ has $i_{th}$ component $f_i(y)\in A_i$. We have $h$ is continuous (and so is in fact a morphism) and $\pi_i (h (y)) = f_i(y)$ by definition. This says that $(\pi_i: (\Pi A_i,\tau_p)\rightarrow A_i)_{i\in I}$ is a terminal cone and hence is a product in $\text{Top}$.
Is this reasoning correct?