Let $d$ and $d^\prime$ be metrics on a non-empty set. Then $d$ is said to be equivalent to $d^\prime$ if there exist positive real numbers $\lambda$ and $\mu$ such that $$ \lambda d^\prime (x,y) \leq d(x,y) \leq \mu d^\prime(x,y) \ \mbox{ for all } x, y \in X.$$ In this case, the open sets in $\left( X, d \right)$ are precisely the same as the open sets in $\left( X, d^\prime \right)$, and the convergent, Cauchy, or bounded sequences in $\left( X, d \right)$ are convergent, Cauchy, or bounded, respectively, in $\left( X, d^\prime \right)$.
Now my question is, if $\left( X_1, d_1 \right), \ldots, \left( X_n, d_n \right)$ are any metric spaces, if $X = \prod_{i=1}^n X_i$, and if $d$ and $d^\prime$ are any two metrics on $X$ which involve the metrics $d_1, \ldots, d_n$ in their formulas and such that with respect to each of $d$ and $d^\prime$, each of the projection maps onto the factors $X_i$ is continuous, then are $d$ and $d^\prime$ always equivalent?
If not, then what is the actual situation that holds in this case?
Actually, this question occurs to me from Prob. 6, Chap. 4 in the book principles of Mathematical Analysis by Walter Rudin, 3rd edition. Rudin has not mentioned which metric to consider for the product of which the graph of $f$ is a subset.
I know that on a finite-dimensional vector space $X$, any two norms are equivalent and hence any two metrics induced by some norms on $X$ are equivalent.