Here is Prob. 2, Sec. 1.4 in the book Introductory Functional Analysis With Applications by Erwine Kreyszig.
If $\left( x_n \right)$ is Cauchy and has a convergent subsequence, say, $x_{n_k} \to x$, show that $\left( x_n \right)$ is convergent with the limit $x$.
My effort:
Let $(X, d)$ be the metric space in which $\left( x_n \right)$ is a Cauchy sequence, and let $\varphi \colon \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ be a strictly increasing function such that the sequence $\left( x_{\varphi(n)} \right)$ converges to a point $x$ of $X$. And, we can put $$n_k = \varphi(k) \ \mbox{ for all } k \in \mathbb{N}.$$
Then, given a real number $\varepsilon > 0$, we can find a natural number $N$ such that $$ (1) \ \ \ \ d \left( x_m, x_n \right) < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} \ \mbox{ for any pair } (m, n) \mbox{ of natural numbers such that } m > N \mbox{ and } n > N.$$
Now for each $k \in \mathbb{N}$, we know that $n_k = \varphi(k) \in \mathbb{N}$; moreover, $$ n_k = \varphi(k) < \varphi(r) = n_r \ \mbox{ if $k \in \mathbb{N}$, $r \in \mathbb{N}$, and $k < r$},$$ because $\varphi$ is a strictly increasing function.
Thus, $n_1 = \varphi(1) \in \mathbb{N}$ and so $n_1 \geq 1$. Let $k$ be any natural number, and suppose that $$n_k = \varphi(k) \geq k.$$ Then since $\varphi$ is a strictly increasing function and since $k+1 \in \mathbb{N}$, therefore we can conclude that $$n_{k+1} = \varphi(k+1) > \varphi(k) \geq k.$$ But $\varphi(k+1) \in \mathbb{N}$. So we can conclude that $\varphi(k+1) \geq k+1$. Hence by induction it follows that $$n_k = \varphi(k) \geq k \mbox{ for all } k \in \mathbb{N}. $$
Thus we know that, for each $k \in \mathbb{N}$, (i) $\varphi(k) \in \mathbb{N}$ and (ii) $\varphi(k) \geq k$.
Now since $$\lim_{k \to \infty} x_{\varphi(k)} = \lim_{k \to \infty} x_{n_k} = x, $$ therefore we can find a natural number $K$ such that $$ (2) \ \ \ \ d\left( x_{n_k}, x \right) = d\left( x_{\varphi(k)}, x \right) < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} \ \mbox{ for any natural number } k \mbox{ such that } k > K.$$
Now let $M$ be any natural number such that $M > \max \left( K, N \right)$. Such an $M$ exists since the set of natural numbers is not bounded above (or by the Archimedian property of $\mathbb{R}$).
Let $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $n > M$. Then we note that $$n_{M+1} = \varphi(M+1) \geq M+1 > M > K$$ so that (2) can be used, and we also note that $$n_{M+1} \in \mathbb{N}, \ \ \ n \in \mathbb{N}, \ \ \ n_{M+1} > M > N, \ \ \ \mbox{ and } \ n > N$$ so that (1) can be used.
Then, from (1) and (2) above, we see that,
$$ d\left( x_n, x\right) \leq d \left( x_n, x_{n_{M+1}} \right) + d \left( x_{n_{M+1}}, x \right) < \frac{\varepsilon}{2} + \frac{\varepsilon}{2} = \varepsilon,$$ for any natural number $n > M$.Thus we have shown that, corresponding to every real number $\varepsilon > 0$, we can find a natural number $M$ such that $$ d \left( x_n, x \right) < \varepsilon \ \mbox{ for any natural number } n > N.$$ Hence the sequence $\left(x_n \right)$ converges in the metric space $(X, d)$ to the point $x \in X$.
Is the above proof correct? If so, then is the presentation good enough? If not, then where lies the flaw?